If anyone knows how to catch Q-9, I would like his imput
on what I'm going to say here.
The original point in this thread deals with marriage as a civil
union recognized by the church.
A search tells me that a marriage license in the United States
stems from the civil-war era in the Dred Scott v. Sanford (1857).
So far I have not found the EXACT wording. But it is paraphrased
as:
"Marriage licenses for all citizens is fairly new. It began in the 1800's,
when citizens which wanted an interracial marriage had to petition
to the government for permission. You see, back then blacks were
not considered citizens with human rights. The Supreme Court ruled
in Dred Scott v. Sandford (1857) that blacks were NOT human beings.
It decreed a slave was his master's property and African Americans
were not citizens; striking down the Missouri Compromise as
unconstitutional."
This seems to represent as to how the goverment came into the
marriage business, with a actual license. This has nothing to do with
a church.
The actual act of being married, getting married goes way back. Pretty
much dry reading but :
From the early Christian era (30 to 325 CE), marriage was thought of as
primarily a private matter,[citation needed] with no uniform religious or
other ceremony being required. However, bishop Ignatius of Antioch writing
around 110 to bishop Polycarp of Smyrna exhorts, "t becomes both men
and women who marry, to form their union with the approval of the bishop,
that their marriage may be according to God, and not after their own lust."
In the 12th century women were obligated to take the name of their husbands
and starting in the second half of the 16th century parental consent along with
the church's consent was required for marriage.
With few local exceptions, until 1545, Christian marriages in Europe were by
mutual consent, declaration of intention to marry and upon the subsequent
physical union of the parties. The couple would promise verbally to
each other that they would be married to each other; the presence of a priest
or witnesses was not required. This promise was known as the "verbum."
If freely given and made in the present tense (e.g., "I marry you"), it was
unquestionably binding; if made in the future tense ("I will marry you"), it would
constitute a betrothal. One of the functions of churches from the Middle Ages
was to register marriages, which was not obligatory. There was no state involvement
in marriage and personal status, with these issues being adjudicated in ecclesiastical
courts. During the Middle Ages marriages were arranged, sometimes as early as birth,
and these early pledges to marry were often used to ensure treaties between different
royal families, nobles, and heirs of fiefdoms. The church resisted these imposed unions,
and increased the number of causes for nullification of these arrangements. As Christianity
spread during the Roman period and the Middle Ages, the idea of free choice in selecting
marriage partners increased and spread with it.
I know this doesn't exactly answer the question, at least it presents information to consider.
If we go on, I don't believe the actual marriage certificate is mentioned as such in the bible.
No verse comes to mind. But their is a mention of a divorce certificate. (I think)
