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That's not unusual and it's not a bad thing. Having any kind of significant assets that need to be distributed after a death generally means that your will must be probated. Probate courts are not just the venue for arguing over who gets what, it's also the venue for changing ownership officially of things that can't normally change hands without the signature of the titled owner, in this case, the decedent. The court gives the administrator/rix (no will) or executor/ix (will) the authority to sign deeds, titles and distribute monies, among other things.
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That question has more than one answer, because people can hold real estate together in a variety of ways, not just percentage of ownership. It can be anything from 'the court only divides his share among his heirs' to 'the original deed granted full ownership to whoever survives the other' and even 'she doesn't actually own anything but a life estate, which grants her the right to live there until she dies but doesn't actually convey any ownership of the real estate'. So your question can't be answered here, it depends not only on the terms of the will but also on the deed itself.
You won't really know where things stand until the will is produced.
Sarah